Swetabh wrote:
Moreover, if co-dependencies were common to two families, there was evidence that they had separate origins within each family, thus yielding no evidence of family-invariant rules. Many universalists, however, were unimpressed: that languages vary widely is well-known. But given that some
Why not
D) There is no evidence of the existence of family-invariant rules.
Option (D) states we can draw the absolute inference that there is NO evidence of the existence of family-invariant rules - BUT we know this JUST as a result of the analysis done by Gray and his team. We dont know whether the results are always true or is a generic truth to make an absolute statement such as "there is NO evidence of the existence of family-invariant rules".
However if you look at option (B) - notice the nature of the inference which is not absolute through the use of words "some", "may" and due to this this can be backed up with just one instance like Gray and his team releasing results that claimed to undermine the theory proposed by Chomsky & Jason
As a result, in inference questions, there should be 2 flags to keep in mind, absolute/extreme answers & re-statement of what is there in passage (as that is not what an inference is)