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Re: Poverty indexes are determined by pretax money income [#permalink]
Expert Reply
Ks1859 wrote:
According to the passage, which of the following is true regarding U.S. poverty definitions?


A. Federal poverty estimates and definitions have gone unchanged since 1969.-Incorrect- Although the author does say that in 1969 there were changes doesn't mean there were no changes in the later years
B. Despite heavy criticism, poverty indexes have not been adjusted for the national cost of living for many years.-Cannot be inferred. The author does talk about regional cost of living not measure, but do not get confused with regional and national.- Incorrect
C. Subsidized housing has recently been included in the determination of poverty status.- In the 3rd paragraph the author says that this is not included- Incorrect
D. The current definition of poverty has shown that the number of poor has increased recently.- In the 4th para the author says that the current definition does not show this- Incorrect
E. A city with a cost of living below the national average would have its poverty level overestimated.- This is mentioned in the first para in the last few lines where, the author talks about various cities and their cost of living.


In the fourth paragraph of the passage, the author is concerned primarily with



A. responding to critics who claim the poverty level in the U.S. has risen- The author is doing anything but responding the critics- Incorrect
B. pointing out an argument against the assertion that the current definition of poverty in the U.S. can be measured-
C. suggesting a reason behind the persistence of the current definition of poverty in the U.S.
D. tracing the recent history of the Census Bureau’s stance on the definition of poverty in the U.S.- Out of scope (considering the 4th paragraph)- Incorrect
E. discussing the implications of a radical modification of the current definition of poverty in the U.S.- No implications discussed- Incorrect


Carcass could you please help me to eliminate option B. I am not very confident of option C as I don't see any reason that the author is suggesting!


Hope this helps!


In question 2?
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Re: Poverty indexes are determined by pretax money income [#permalink]
Carcass wrote:
Ks1859 wrote:
According to the passage, which of the following is true regarding U.S. poverty definitions?


A. Federal poverty estimates and definitions have gone unchanged since 1969.-Incorrect- Although the author does say that in 1969 there were changes doesn't mean there were no changes in the later years
B. Despite heavy criticism, poverty indexes have not been adjusted for the national cost of living for many years.-Cannot be inferred. The author does talk about regional cost of living not measure, but do not get confused with regional and national.- Incorrect
C. Subsidized housing has recently been included in the determination of poverty status.- In the 3rd paragraph the author says that this is not included- Incorrect
D. The current definition of poverty has shown that the number of poor has increased recently.- In the 4th para the author says that the current definition does not show this- Incorrect
E. A city with a cost of living below the national average would have its poverty level overestimated.- This is mentioned in the first para in the last few lines where, the author talks about various cities and their cost of living.


In the fourth paragraph of the passage, the author is concerned primarily with



A. responding to critics who claim the poverty level in the U.S. has risen- The author is doing anything but responding the critics- Incorrect
B. pointing out an argument against the assertion that the current definition of poverty in the U.S. can be measured-
C. suggesting a reason behind the persistence of the current definition of poverty in the U.S.
D. tracing the recent history of the Census Bureau’s stance on the definition of poverty in the U.S.- Out of scope (considering the 4th paragraph)- Incorrect
E. discussing the implications of a radical modification of the current definition of poverty in the U.S.- No implications discussed- Incorrect


Carcass could you please help me to eliminate option B. I am not very confident of option C as I don't see any reason that the author is suggesting!


Hope this helps!


In question 2?


Yes Sir
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Re: Poverty indexes are determined by pretax money income [#permalink]
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Despite modifications and numerous criticisms, it appears that the Census Bureau will continue to use the present definition of U.S. poverty and its methods of tabulation for the foreseeable future.


C. suggesting a reason behind the persistence of the current definition of poverty in the U.S.

Clearly, if you read carefully, C is the correct option.

However, B is not so a long shot

B. pointing out an argument against the assertion that the current definition of poverty in the U.S. can be measured

In the 4th para we do not have an argument. However, argument and reason are clearly different but the difference is blurry. My argument is also my reason
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Re: Poverty indexes are determined by pretax money income [#permalink]
Hello from the GRE Prep Club VerbalBot!

Thanks to another GRE Prep Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

Want to see all other topics I dig out? Follow me (click follow button on profile). You will receive a summary of all topics I bump in your profile area as well as via email.
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Re: Poverty indexes are determined by pretax money income [#permalink]
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