Last visit was: 22 Nov 2024, 01:10 It is currently 22 Nov 2024, 01:10

Close

GRE Prep Club Daily Prep

Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GRE score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.

Close

Request Expert Reply

Confirm Cancel
SORT BY:
Date
Verbal Expert
Joined: 18 Apr 2015
Posts: 30003
Own Kudos [?]: 36342 [8]
Given Kudos: 25927
Send PM
GRE Prep Club Team Member
Joined: 20 Feb 2017
Posts: 2508
Own Kudos [?]: 3621 [1]
Given Kudos: 1053
GPA: 3.39
Send PM
GRE Prep Club Team Member
Joined: 20 Feb 2017
Posts: 2508
Own Kudos [?]: 3621 [2]
Given Kudos: 1053
GPA: 3.39
Send PM
GRE Prep Club Team Member
Joined: 20 Feb 2017
Posts: 2508
Own Kudos [?]: 3621 [1]
Given Kudos: 1053
GPA: 3.39
Send PM
Re: Many people believe that because wages are lower in developing countri [#permalink]
1
Expert Reply
3. The passage suggests that if the movement of capital in the world were restricted, which of the following would be likely?

Explanation

"In a developing country's economy as a whole, productivity improvements in goods traded internationally are likely to cause an increase in wages." This implies that an increase in productivity should lead to an increase in wages. But "if wages are not allowed to rise, the value of the country's currency will appreciate." Thus, if wages do not rise as productivity increases, the value of the country's currency should grow.

"In the past a few countries have deliberately kept their currencies undervalued" (that is, prevented the value of the country's currency from appreciating). However, this practice "is now much harder to do in a world where capital moves more freely." In other words, it is now much harder for a country to deliberately keep its currency undervalued because capital now moves more freely in the world. We can infer from this statement that "if the movement of capital in the world were restricted," that would make it easier for a country to deliberately keep its currency undervalued, even as productivity increases.

if capital movement is restricted in developing countries, the productivity will not be able to increase value of the currency and hence will lead to an increase in wages. now, if the wages in developing countries are increased, the developed countries will become more effective in competing, as the one of the reason why developing countries were gaining jobs was because of low wages. so b can be a contender.

"Workers could obtain higher wages by increasing their productivity."

if currency is kept undervalued the productivity increase has to cause an increase in wages. so why is E wrong.[/quote]
Quote:
if capital movement is restricted in developing countries, the productivity will not be able to increase value of the currency and hence will lead to an increase in wages.
This is not necessarily true. We are told that IF we have productivity improvements, we will likely see an increase in wages. That still leaves the possibility that we could have productivity improvements without an increase in wages. Now, if we go with the likely scenario where wages should increase BUT the wages are not allowed to rise, THEN the value of the country's currency will appreciate, unless the country manages to deliberately undervalue their currency. But deliberately undervaluing currency is hard to do because capital moves more freely.

So if capital were restricted and could NOT move freely, it would be hard for a country to deliberately undervalue its currency. This means that we could have productivity improvements WITHOUT an increase in wages and also WITHOUT an appreciate in the value of the country's currency, which is exactly what choice (D) says.

As for choice (B), just because we have productivity improvements and NO increase in the value of the currency does not mean that wages will increase. Theoretically, if wages were not allowed to rise and the movement of capital were restricted, we could have productivity improvements with neither an increase in wages nor an appreciation in the value of the currency.

Quote:
if currency is kept undervalued the productivity increase has to cause an increase in wages
This logic is not valid for the same reason, so choice (E) should also be eliminated.

Refer to the following portions further supporting choice (D):

  • "In a developing country's economy as a whole, productivity improvements in goods traded internationally are likely to cause an increase in wages." - Note that this does not say that wages will DEFINITELY increase with productivity improvements.
  • If the productivity improvements should cause wages to increase BUT "wages are not allowed to rise, the value of the country's currency will appreciate, which (from the developed countries' point of view) is the equivalent of increased wages in the developing country." - This portion refers to the LIKELY scenario in which wages should increase with productivity. If, in that case, wages are NOT allowed to rise, the value of the currency will appreciate.
  • Countries can try to deliberately undervalue their currency, but "that is now much harder to do in a world where capital moves more freely."

Thus, "if the movement of capital in the world were restricted", it is likely that a "country's productivity could increase without significantly increasing the value of its currency." (D) is the best option.
Prep Club for GRE Bot
Re: Many people believe that because wages are lower in developing countri [#permalink]
Moderators:
GRE Forum Moderator
37 posts
GRE Instructor
234 posts
GRE Instructor
1065 posts

Powered by phpBB © phpBB Group | Emoji artwork provided by EmojiOne