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Re: QOTD # 21 Universalism was most prominently set forward by [#permalink]
Moreover, if co-dependencies were common to two families, there was evidence that they had separate origins within each family, thus yielding no evidence of family-invariant rules. Many universalists, however, were unimpressed: that languages vary widely is well-known. But given that some
Why not
D) There is no evidence of the existence of family-invariant rules.
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Re: QOTD # 21 Universalism was most prominently set forward by [#permalink]
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Swetabh wrote:
Moreover, if co-dependencies were common to two families, there was evidence that they had separate origins within each family, thus yielding no evidence of family-invariant rules. Many universalists, however, were unimpressed: that languages vary widely is well-known. But given that some
Why not
D) There is no evidence of the existence of family-invariant rules.



Option (D) states we can draw the absolute inference that there is NO evidence of the existence of family-invariant rules - BUT we know this JUST as a result of the analysis done by Gray and his team. We dont know whether the results are always true or is a generic truth to make an absolute statement such as "there is NO evidence of the existence of family-invariant rules".

However if you look at option (B) - notice the nature of the inference which is not absolute through the use of words "some", "may" and due to this this can be backed up with just one instance like Gray and his team releasing results that claimed to undermine the theory proposed by Chomsky & Jason

As a result, in inference questions, there should be 2 flags to keep in mind, absolute/extreme answers & re-statement of what is there in passage (as that is not what an inference is)
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Re: QOTD # 21 Universalism was most prominently set forward by [#permalink]
ANSWERS ARE D and B for questions 1 and 3. Could somebody explain q.2?
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Re: QOTD # 21 Universalism was most prominently set forward by [#permalink]
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Many universalists, however, were unimpressed: that languages vary widely is well-known. But given that some language is spoken by virtually all human beings, it would be strange if it did not reflect cognitive universals. It is the search for those universals, not the cataloging of variations, that should take priority.


The last sentence basically tells us that Universalism cannot be explained if not with the fact that all languages reflect features innate to human thinking, since virtually all human beings speak some language.


Hope this helps.

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Re: QOTD # 21 Universalism was most prominently set forward by [#permalink]
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Re: QOTD # 21 Universalism was most prominently set forward by [#permalink]
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