Answer is (C)

Argument: Illegal duplication is widespread
Assumption: More computers than programs purchased

So what's going on here? There is a gap between # of computers purchased and # of computer programs purchased. Visualize this.

What explains the gap?

The author is suggesting a possible reason for the gap - illegal duplication is widespread in germany. Since more computers and not enough programs, he's guessing that the computer programs are copied illegally in order to match the # of computers purchased.

A concrete example - if 100 computers are purchased and only 20 computer programs are purchased...i'm guessing the author is assuming the ratio should be more 1:1, so in order to get that, the remaining 80 computer programs must have been duplicated illegally.

OK..now that we understand that...

What does the question say? "Would counter a reasonable objection advanced above EXCEPT"

Ok, so there is an objection (negation), then we are countering that negation. So 2 negatives equal a positive. Four of the answer choices will support our existing argument...ONE will NOT.

Four will help explain or support why there is illegal duplication.

(A) Few German computer users write their own computer programs.

Well, this helps explain the gap. If few german computers write their own computer programs...this thinking can lead to the conclusion that since they don't write their own programs, they COPY them. So this is in support of our "illegal duplication" argument.

(B) There are few free noncommercial computer programs available in Germany.
If there are not that many free programs, then everything cost money. As a result, ppl can still COPY.

C) Some Germans purchase computers outside of Germany for use in Germany, and such
purchases were counted in the survey.

Well, if computers are purchased outside of Germany, then maybe that's why there is an inflated number for the number of computers purchased. It's possible that there is NO illegal copying if our number for the # of computers purchased is inflated. The actual # of computers purchased IN germany might actually be lower and closer to the # of computer programs purchased...this would lead to the conclusion that there is NO copying going on. This is AGAINST our argument...this is the answer (C).

(D) The typical German computer user has several commercially written computer programs on
his or her computer.
If each computer has more than 1 computer program...but the # of computer programs purchased suggests that figure is much lower than 1...then the remainder might have come from pirating! This supports our argument that COPYING exists.

(E) Many Germans legally make duplicates of commercial computer programs, but such
duplicates were counted as purchased copies in the survey.

If there are legal duplicates and they are counted as "purchased copies"...well we are still significantly lower! If the ones that are purchased are already duplicates (!), then what about the rest of the gap? This one also might suggest that duplicating of the illegal kind might still be the culprit here.