1. If a man can do a piece of work in N days (or hours or any other unit of time), then the work done by him in one day will be \(\frac{1}{N}\) of the total work.
Now Earlier, we all agreed that from \(A + B = \frac{1}{x}\), we will have
x = 1/(A+B).
the red part is wrong
\(A+B=\frac{1}{x}\)
Then we do have
\(\frac{1}{A}+\frac{1}{B}=x\)
NOT \(\frac{1}{A+B}\) this is not the same.
We take into account always that a job is = units/hour
So A+B become 1/A+1/B because speed and time are inversionally proportional when they are equal to a constant which is x in this case
From the math standing point \(\frac{1}{A+B} \neq \frac{1}{A}+\frac{1}{B}\)
See more here for theory
https://gre.myprepclub.com/forum/gre-wo ... 24921.html