Let's analyze what the argument is trying to say.
The first time admissions in Great Britain are 90 and in the US they are only 10. Why such a huge gap. To fill this gap we need to find some extra information that connects the two and clears any confusion.
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(A) The term manic-depressive refers to a wider range of mentally ill patients in Great Britain than it does in the United States.
This looks like a contender. If the array of terms that relate to manic-depressive patients is more, then the patients admitted will be more. Keep this option.
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(B) The admission rate in the United States includes those individuals who visit clinics for the first time as well as those who are admitted directly to hospitals.
This shows that why the US admission rate might be low, but it doesn't tell us anything about the admission rate of Great Britain. Eliminated.
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(C) A small percentage of patients diagnosed as manic-depressive in Great Britain are admitted to private nursing homes rather than hospitals.
That means if they were admitted to hospitals then the rate would have been higher. It increases the confusion instead of resolving it. Eliminated.
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(D) The variety of training institutions in psychology in the United States is greater than in Great Britain, reflecting the variety of schools of psychology that have developed in the United States.
Just because there are variety of schools of psychology does not mean that the overall cases of manic-depressive patients have decreased. Doesn't address our confusion properly. We need to make various assumptions in this option for this to be our contender. Eliminated.
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(E) Seeking professional assistance for mental health problems no longer carries a social stigma in the United States, as it once did.
Stigma is not a part of the argument. Stigma does not correlate to the number of admissions
according to the argument. Eliminated.
OA, A