IshanPathak wrote:
What is the explanation for Q1 and Q4?
Hi There!
1. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about most political theories in the Classical era?Before moving to the options, what does the author says about the theories in classical era is: There is no doubt that Machiavelli’s The Prince was
very different from other political texts of the Classical era in that
it veered more towards the shrewd and pragmatic modern form of politicsSo, from the above, we can infer that Machiavelli’s The Prince was more towards the shrewd or practical form as compared to the other theories, and in turn we can infer, that other theories were not more on the practical end. And the author does not mention the classical era anywhere else in the passage
(A) It was not favored by several important men of that time.- OUT, this is not discussed about classical era
(B) It was considered mild and less aggressive in comparison to other political theories of that time.- We don't have a comparison of most politcal theories with other political theories- OUT
(C) It was rooted more in practicality than in principles.- Opposite of the above- Machiavelli's theory was rooted and not other theories- OUT
(D) It was eventually abandoned in favor of realpolitik countries.- This is discussed later and does not refer to other political theories-OUT
(E) At least some of its tenets were not rooted in practicality.-Correct, matches with the above inference
IMO EAlso note, we should try not to choose and extreme answer with words like always, never etc until and unless we know that it is supported by the passage.
4. Which of the following is a point of similarity between Sorolla and Machiavelli?The author talk about Sorolla and Machiavelli in the end of the 1st para and the first half of the second saying that - In fact, this system called ‘realpolitik’ or politics without principles was actually in practice long before Machiavelli’s time. Machiavelli just made this system more popular and mainstream.
One example of the use of realpolitik before Machiavelli’s time is of the evil Spanish imperial advisor Ortega Sorolla.
Thus, we can infer that both of them used realpolitik~politics without principle
(A) Both of them believed in the supreme position of the emperor.
(B) Both of them believed that victory in war was paramount, no matter at what cost it came.
(C) Both of them believed that maintaining a strong and able army was more important than making good laws.
(D) Both of them believed that it was acceptable to go to any lengths in the single-minded pursuit of one’s goal.- This indicates the above- Correct(E) Both of them were a creation of the initial monopoly of the Classical political theory.
IMO DLet me know if you need further assistance
Hope this helps!