It doesn't matter what distribution it is. This question tests the concept of "percentile": if x is at k percentile, then k% of the whole observations are below x.

Still do not get how both quantities are equal.

I do not agree with the answer because

- the first question asks "a score less than John’s score", hence less than 32, but not including 32 itself
- the second asks "equal to or greater than Jane’s score", hence 100-68=32, including 68th percentile itself

as a result, we need to compare "less than 32" with "exactly 32"
so the answer should be B

It is given that john scored a 32nd percentile and not 32% or 32 marks. By definition, 32 percentile means that 32% of the total test takers were below the john's score(which is not given). Similarly,100-68= 32% of total test takers were either equal or above the jane's score.
Hence , the quantities are equal.

question phrased weirdly

What if there are 100 students. Jane got grade of 40, and another group of people got 40. So technically it is possible that only one student out of 100 got less than Jane, like if one got grade of 10 and the next 35 got 32 like Jane. So it is possible that A=1 and B=30
So why the answer in the book is C?

Assume that the next grades possible:
{1, 30, 30, 30,..., 98, 99, 100}
According to this list, Jane will have only one smaller grade (1), while John will have three (98, 99, 100)

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