"equal parts where ((k+4)/25) % of each part is equal to 1....." plz rephrase it ......i cant get it meaning....

Hi There!

Try breaking down the question into small parts.

The first part If we divide 5000 into \((k^2-16)\) equal parts , this means when we divide 5000 by \((k^2-16)\) we get some value lets say x part

The second part \(\frac{(k+4)}{(25)} \)% of each part is equal to 1 what is k, this means the x part that we got above is when distributed in \(\frac{(k+4)}{(25)} \)% then each part is 1.

So basically,
\(\frac{5000}{(k^2-16)}\)=x
x * \(\frac{(k+4)}{(25)} \)% =1


Hope this helps!