Carcass wrote:
If \((n+2)!= n!(an^2+bn+c),\) then \(abc=?\)
\(A. 2\)
\(B. 3\)
\(C. 4\)
\(D. 6\)
\(E. 8\)
First recognize that (n + 2)! = (n + 2)(n + 1)
(n)(n - 1)(n - 2)(n - 3)....(3)(2)(1)= (n + 2)(n + 1)
(n!)=
(n!)(n + 2)(n + 1)
The question tells us that (n + 2)! = n!(an² + bn + c)
So, we can write:
(n!)(n + 2)(n + 1) = n!(an² + bn + c)
Divide both sides by n! to get: (n + 2)(n + 1) = an² + bn + c
Use FOIL to expand left side: n² + 3n + 2 = an² + bn + c
In other words:
1n² +
3n +
2 =
an² +
bn +
cSo,
a = 1,
b = 3 and
c = 2This means abc = (1)(3)(2) = 6
Answer: D
Cheers,
Brent