If a=3, b=5 and c=2, then
A) \(b!>(a+c)!\)
B) \(b!>(ac)!\)
C) \(\frac{b!}{(ac)!}>1\)
D) \(\frac{(bc)!}{a!}<(b + c)!\)
E) \(a! + b! + c!>(abc)!\)
Starting from the fact that option B and C are the same, but it could be a trick, the explanation and the answer to this question are completely messy.
It says "Substitute the values of a, b and c in the expression only \(\frac{b!}{(ac)!}>1\) is true. The correct answer is A".
The fact is that neither \(\frac{b!}{(ac)!}>1\) nor A are right. Without any sign of equality, I would say that no answer is correct. Am I right?